I’m in Philadelphia, PA, where we have many tiny streets only 10’ wide with houses on both sides. We also have some obnoxious citizens who park in those streets on occasion, which blocks the street entirely. It’s considered “double parking” and it’s illegal, but so low on the enforcement totem pole that no police or parking authority responds to calls about it.
    Our street is one of those, and there are multiple garages/off street spaces where residents park. We’ve learned to find the house with the offender when a car is blocking the street, since that’s the only way to get one’s car out.
    So yesterday when I did this, I found the neighbor who’d decided that since another car was blocking HER spot she could also park in the street (thus blocking us, who could otherwise have gotten out). She told me I could squeeze out past her car and so she didn’t need to move. I told her that I knew I couldn’t without hitting her car… and there’s my question!
    If I HAD done what she told me to do and awkwardly squeezed past her illegally parked car – and in so doing, damaged it – would I have been the liable party? Or is her car liable because it was left in a place where it is never allowable to park? The fact that her car is a mint Tesla – and mine a 10 year old city beater – played a big role in my not wanting to risk hitting it.

    Thanks in advance for any guesses. I DID read the rules and I think this is an allowable question.

    Theoretical auto accident liability question
    byu/Mothereffinnature inInsurance



    Posted by Mothereffinnature

    3 Comments

    1. You would be at fault. You hit a parked car. Done. The city can give her a ticket. It would be no different than hitting a sign or pole. You can see it, it’s not moving, don’t hit it.

    2. >If I HAD done what she told me to do and awkwardly squeezed past her illegally parked car – and in so doing, damaged it – would I have been the liable party?

      Yes

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